The reading section on the TEAS is designed to test your reading comprehension abilities. You are given 55 minutes to answer 45 questions divided over three topics: identifying key ideas and details, identifying author’s craft and text structure, and comparing and integrating knowledge and ideas. You will need to demonstrate your ability to comprehend and analyze long and short passages of various natures, as well as charts and tables, and reach conclusions based on their content and structure.
Let's start with a typical Key Ideas and Details question, asking you to locate information within a table:
Use the chart below to answer the question.
*PUD = peptic ulcer disease
*GERD/GORD = gastroesophageal reflux disease
*ZES = Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
According to the table above, a 15-year-old patient with dyspepsia and high cholesterol is likely to take:
A. 8 Mg Cimetidine
B. 300 mg Esomeprazole
C. Simvastatin and Rosuvastatin
D. Nizatidine and Simvastatin
Answer
The correct answer is (D).
Nizatidine treats dyspepsia, and simvastatin treats high cholesterol. In addition, there is no indication in any of their notes of a possible negative interaction. Finally, they are both age-appropriate.
Answer (A) is incorrect because cimetidine can be prescribed only for people 16 years of age and above. The patient in the question is 15-years-old.
Answer (B) is incorrect because although this drug treats dyspepsia, it does not treat high cholesterol. In addition, the dosage range of esomeprazole is 10–240. Since 300 mg is beyond that range, this option is unlikely.
Answer (C) is incorrect because neither simvastatin nor rosuvastatin treat dyspepsia. In addition, according to the notes on rosuvastatin, it may interact with simvastatin. Thus, this option is unlikely.
Now, let's move on to a Craft and Structure question, asking you to figure out the reason for using an underline in a sentence:
Read the passage below before answering the question.
PhD students who are interested in tutoring BA students are asked to submit their nominations to the secretary of the PhD department no later than Friday, July 25. For a complete list of all exercises, see attachment.
Which of the following is the most likely reason for using an underline in the above message?
A. To indicate a title is being used
The correct answer is (C).
Review the options: Answer (A): A title would have been placed at the beginning of the message and would most likely have presented the main subject of the message, BA student tutoring. Answer (B): There is no timeline in the letter, only a specific date. Answer (C): Since a deadline is an important date for the recipient to bear in mind, it is logical that it be emphasized. In this case, it was done by means of an underline. Therefore, this is the correct answer. Answer (D): This statement is incorrect and, therefore, you can eliminate it.
Tip: Sometimes it is better to read the question before looking at the passage or stimulus so that you know what to look for as you read it. This will save you time and effort and may even save you from needing to read the whole passage or table in certain questions if the answer is readily apparent in one specific part.
Now let's see a question for the third topic of the Reading section - Integration of Knowledge and Ideas:
You encounter the following sentence while reading:
The physician’s hands moved over the moaning patient's limbs, careful not to apply pressure around the articulations.
You have not heard the word "articulation" used in this way before, so you look it up in a dictionary and find the following:
articulation
1 a movable joint between rigid parts of a vertebrate
2 the state of being jointed or interrelated
3 the act of giving utterance or expression
4 the act of properly arranging artificial teeth
Which of these definitions best suits the sentence?
A. Definition 1
B. Definition 2
C. Definition 3
D. Definition 4
The correct answer is (A).
In the context of the sentence, it makes sense that the physician's hands were careful not to put pressure around the moaning patient’s joints.
Answer (B) is incorrect because it is less logical for the physician to not put pressure on a "state."
Answer (C) is incorrect because although the patient was making sounds (moaning), it is less logical for the physician to not put pressure on the patient's "act of uttering."
Answer (D) is incorrect because there is nothing in the sentence that indicates the physician was touching the patient’s mouth—the sentence mentions limbs. In addition, it is less logical for the physician to not put pressure on "an act of arranging."
Here are two general tips for dealing with the TEAS test reading section:
1. Read! Reading is a great way to improve your vocabulary and reading speed. You will find yourself spending less time reading the texts in the test and more time actually answering the questions.
2. Treat the texts in the exam as real when answering the questions, and do not let your prior knowledge interfere.
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The TEAS Math section tests you in a variety of different math topics, divided into two main categories: Numbers and Algebra and Measurement and Data. Consisting of 38 questions to be completed in 54 minutes, the test alternates between types of problems such as operations, algebraic applications, data interpretations, and measurements. You are allowed to use a calculator on the TEAS Exam.
Let's start with two Numbers and Algebra questions. Numbers and Algebra is the largest category on the Math section:
A farmer needs to calculate how much feed to buy each week for his farm. He knows that each cow eats 24 pounds of feed a day and each pig eats 7 pounds of feed a day. If he has x cows and y pigs, how much feed does he need to buy each week?
A. 7(x + y)The correct answer is (D).
First, work out the total for one day. There are x cows, each needing 24 pounds of food. That is 24x pounds of food. Writing letters and numbers together means they are multiplied together. There are y pigs, each needing 7 pounds of food. That is 7y pounds of food. The total per day is 24x + 7y pounds of food. Over the course of a week, this would be multiplied by 7 to give 7(24x + 7y) = 168x + 49y.
Mary wishes to give liquid Tylenol to her two young children (3 and 5 years old), both suffering from fever. According to the label, between the ages of 2–3, the recommended dosage is 5 milliliters, and between the ages of 4–5, the recommended dosage is 7.5 milliliters. For both age groups, a maximum of five doses are allowed per day.
How much liquid Tylenol does Mary have to buy if she wants to be sure she has enough medicine to give both children maximum dosages for four days?
The correct answer is (A).
To solve this question, you need to calculate the maximum total amount for each child and then sum the two together to arrive at the correct answer.
For the 3 year old – 5 milliliters (age group dosage) x 5 (times a day) x 4 (days) = 100 milliliters.
For the 5 year old – 7.5 milliliters (age group dosage) x 5 (times a day) x 4 (days) = 150 milliliters.
Thus, the total amount Mary has to buy is 100 milliliters + 150 milliliters = 250 milliliters.
Now let's see a typical Measurement and Data question:
6, 23, 25, 27, 27, 29, 31, 36
Which of the following conclusions would be correct if the outlier was removed from this set?
A. The range would decrease and the mean would decreaseThe correct answer is (D).
Initially, the median of these numbers is 27, as there are two middle numbers of 27. The range is 36 - 6 = 30. The mean is:{6+23+25+27+27+29+31+36}/{8}=25.5 In this set of numbers, the outlier is 6. It is much smaller than the rest of the numbers, which are in the 20s and 30s. If you were to remove this number, you would be left with seven numbers:23, 25, 27, 27, 29, 31, 36. As 27 is the middle number, it is still the median. Thus, the median has stayed the same. The range is now 36 - 23 = 13. Thus, it has decreased. This makes sense as there is now less of a difference between the smallest and the largest number. The mean is now:{23 + 25 + 27 + 27 + 29 + 31 +36}/{7} = 28.3 Thus, the mean has increased. This is because there are fewer small numbers. The 6 pulled the original mean down and has now been removed. Therefore, the median has stayed the same and the mean has increased, so the correct answer is (D).
Here are two general tips for dealing with the ATI TEAS test math section:
1. Numbers & Algebra is the largest topic on the Math section, with 23 questions, while the Measurement & Data topic contains only 9 questions. Therefore, if you don't have enough time, we recommend to put an emphasis on Numbers & Algebra first.
2. Make sure you are familiar with order of operations by memorizing PEMDAS (Parentheses, Exponents, Multiplication, Division, Addition, Subtraction).
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The science section of the TEAS test contains 50 questions, to be completed in 63 minutes. It is comprised of four topics: Human Anatomy & Physiology, Biology, Chemistry, and Scientific Reasoning. The TEAS science section is one of the largest sections on the exam, and from our experience, it is also one of the most challenging, as you must memorize lots of information in addition to understanding chemical and biological processes.
Let's start with Human Anatomy and Physiology - the main topic in the Science section:
Which of the following is not carried out by the respiratory system?
A. Gas exchangeThe correct answer is (C).
The respiratory system is responsible for gas exchange (the inhalation of O2 and exhalation of CO2). The CO2 concentration, in turn effect the blood pH. The respiratory system includes a conducting zone which filters the incoming air (as well as heating and moistening it).The disposal of toxins takes place in the liver, where the toxic compounds are broken up or modified, in order to be removed from the body.
Let's move on and examine a Biology question - asking you about processes in the nervous system:
Which of the following statements about action potential is correct?
A. Opening potassium channels depolarizes the membrane, while opening sodium channels repolarizes the membrane.The correct answer is (C).
It is important to remember two things: 1. The membrane resting state potential is -70 mV. 2. Potassium concentration is high within the cell while calcium and sodium concentrations are high outside the cell. When action potential occurs, sodium channels open, and sodium ions “rush” into the cells, which immediately depolarizes the negative membrane. Soon after, potassium channels open, and potassium ions “rush” out of the cell, which then repolarizes the membrane back to its resting potential. Calcium concentrations are several orders of magnitude lower than those of potassium and sodium, thus they are insufficient for membrane polarization; calcium inflow and outflow are used mainly for signaling.
Finally, let's see a typical Chemistry question, requiring you to implement your knowledge in chemical reactions:
Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2
Which of the following statements correctly describes the reaction above?
A. The chlorine has been oxidized and the hydrogen has been reduced.The correct answer is (B).
In order to solve this, first find the redox state of each atom. Start with the reactants: When an atom is uncharged and not in a molecule, its redox state is 0. When hydrogen is in a non-metal compound, its redox state is +1. When chlorine is in a compound (and not with oxygen or fluorine), its redox state is -1. Moving on with the products: Chlorine is still in a compound, and not with oxygen or fluorine, its redox state is still -1.
Remember that the sum of the oxidation states of all the atoms or ions in a neutral compound is zero; therefore, since MgCl2 is not charged, the magnesium ion’s new redox state is +2. Lastly, the redox state of hydrogen as gas is 0.
To sum up the redox changes: Magnesium’s redox state increased from 0 to +2; therefore, it was oxidized. Hydrogen’s redox state dropped from +1 to 0; therefore, it was reduced. Note: Whenever an atom is oxidized, some other atom must be reduced, and vice versa. Since redox reaction involves the transfer of electron, for every acceptor there is a donor and vice versa. For this reason, distractors such as D can easily be eliminated.
Here are two tips for dealing with the TEAS science section:
1. Focus mainly on human anatomy and physiology, as this topic makes up most of the science section. Sample questions 1 & 2 are good examples of this part.
2. When dealing with the topics of Biology we found it crucial to rule the basics. Specifically: the structure of the atom, structure of DNA, and differences in structure between solid, gas, and liquid.
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The English and Language Usage section of the TEAS is made up of questions assessing spelling, punctuation, sentence structure, grammar, and word meaning. These are divided across three topics scattered throughout the test: Conventions of Standard English, Using Language and Vocabulary, and Knowledge of Language and Grammar. This section contains 37 questions to be completed in 28 minutes.
Let's start with Conventions of Standard English, with a question asking you to find the phrase that is located in the wrong place:
Some say that buying today is harder than finding the love of your life a house.
Which of the following phrases is misplaced in the sentence above?
The correct answer is (D).
The original sentence is incorrect because the verb "buying" requires an object. What is harder than finding the love of your life today is buying a house. Said house appears in the sentence, but it is misplaced, implying that you intend to find the love of your life a house. The sentence should read: "Some say that buying a house today is harder than finding the love of your life."
Now let's move on to Using Language and Vocabulary, with a typical sentence completion question:
It is very rare to see green turtles off the coast of California; ________, during the summer they can be found among the rocks.
Which of the following words best completes the sentence above?
A. Therefore
B. Subsequently
C. However
D. Unfortunately
Answer
The correct answer is (C).
The two parts of the sentence are meant to contrast with each other, and only answer (C) expresses contrast.The sentence should read "It is very rare to see green turtles off the coast of California; however, during the summer they can be found among the rocks.
Finally, let's see a Knowledge of Language and Grammar question, asking you to figure out the correct way to write a sentence:
The DMV is issuing new driving licenses to people, men, and women under the age of 21.
Which of the following words or phrases are redundant in the sentence above?
The correct answer is (C).
The phrase "men and women" is included in the noun "people." Answer (A) is incorrect because while the word "new" is not necessary for the sentence to be correct, removing it would change the meaning of the sentence. Answer (B) is incorrect because the word "to" is a necessary preposition. Answer (D) is incorrect because if the phrase "the age" were removed, the sentence would have a redundant "of."
Here are two things that will help you score high on this section:
1. Increase your vocabulary by reading. Indeed, the vocabulary part in the English section is quite small, but you can win these points easily.
2. Make sure you are familiar with various parts of speech: nouns, pronouns, verbs, prepositions, etc. Parts of speech appear in many questions during this section. The more you are familiar with them and their role, the better you will perform on this section.
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Now that you’ve seen what the test looks like, let’s discuss how the scoring works.
The grade you receive on your TEAS exam is calculated based on the percentage of questions answered correctly. You will receive a grade for each section, and even one for each subtopic in the section. This will allow you to see precisely where your strengths and weaknesses are. However, the overall score for the exam is a little more complicated, as each section is weighted differently based on a number of different factors. The school you are applying to will have its own criteria for what your total score should be, and may also look specifically at certain sub-scores. It is recommended to make sure with the school or college you are applying to the required score.
After you have familiarized yourself with the various question types found on the TEAS exam it is important to practice for this test several times under pressure of time in order to score high on the actual test. Without such practice, it will be difficult to show what you really know as you may feel rushed. Our all-inclusive TEAS preparation pack includes two full-length accurate TEAS test simulations. In addition, it includes six Math drills, six English Language drills, eight Reading drills, and two Science drills. These materials will provide you with a thorough and accurate preparation for the TEAS.
In order to help prepare yourself for the test, make use of our five free TEAS practice study guides. The first of these guides includes practice questions, answers, and tips to begin your preparation for the test as a whole. You can also find information about the number of questions and time frames for each section, as well as how much each topic contributes to your overall grade. The other four guides are subject-specific and contain tips for each of the individual sections. You can click the links below to download each TEAS exam study guide.
If you have any further questions, feel free to contact Eitan, TestPrep-Online's expert for the TEAS Test (Test of essential academic skills), at ask_eitan@testprep-online.com
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